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Can you explain Proverbs 2:19? Does it mean that those who have committed adultery cannot be saved? Before my husband was “saved” he broke his vows many times, and I suffer with medical consequences for his sins. But, three years ago he repented, became a Christian and has been totally changed by Christ. How should I see this in relation to his salvation?
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Based on the Scriptures in Ecclesiastes 12:13, Matthew 5:17, Romans 3:31, Revelation 12:17 & 14:12 (and many more), I am of the understanding that the whole of Scripture is centered around the observance of the original instructions or what people call the Torah. This would complement the scripture where Christ is our sacrificial lamb, and our propitiation for sin, based on the violation of Torah, in which John expounds in his first epistle. Do you find this to be synonymous throughout Scripture?
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I saw a teaching about taking the Lord’s name in vain. They said that it means much more than using the Lord’s name/names as a curse. On a deeper level it means to not give God a bad reputation by calling oneself a Christian but living just like the world. Are there any other scriptures that can support this?
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I was baptized in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost. My whole body was buried under the water. Am I considered to be a child of God? Must I be baptized in Jesus’ name? Christ said to go into the world and baptize in the name of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost. I did that. What am I to the kingdom of God now?
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