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I know that Matthew 5:32 says, “But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery.” But because there was adultery in the marriage on both sides, will it be adultery to remarry? I continue to repent daily for my sins, and I have abstained from sex since it was revealed to me at the beginning of the year (going on 9 months). I’m so confused now with what is biblically correct.
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In Luke 1:18-20, Zacharias was silenced because he didn’t believe and questioned how it would be possible to have a son since he and his wife were old and his wife. In Luke 1:34, Mary also questioned how she could have a son. Why was Zacharias silenced and Mary wasn’t? Did Mary believe and just didn’t understand?
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