When the Lord Jesus was on the earth, John the Baptist was baptizing people.  We read in John 1:28 that, “These things were done in Bethabara beyond Jordan, where John was baptizing.”  While the mode is the same, the purpose of John’s baptism is different from what we know today as Christian baptism.  Let’s read Romans 6:3-4, “Are you ignorant that we, as many as have been baptised unto Christ Jesus, have been baptised unto his death?  We have been buried therefore with him by baptism unto death, in order that, even as Christ has been raised up from among [the] dead by the glory of the Father, so we also should walk in newness of life.” (Darby).  This shows us that baptism today is an identification with the Lord in His death and resurrection.  With our baptism, we are directed to “walk in newness of life.”  So, when we acknowledge our death and resurrection in Christ by baptism, we are then to walk according to the new life we have in Christ.  We learn in 2 Corinthians 5:17 that, “Therefore if any man be in Christ, he is a new creature: old things are passed away; behold, all things are become new.”

The baptism of John the Baptist was for a different purpose because he baptized people BEFORE the Lord Jesus was crucified.  We read in Matthew 3:5-8, “Then went out to him Jerusalem, and all Judaea, and all the region round about Jordan, And were baptized of him in Jordan, CONFESSING THEIR SINS. But when he saw many of the Pharisees and Sadducees come to his baptism, he said unto them, O generation of vipers, who hath warned you to flee from the wrath to come? BRING FORTH THEREFORE FRUITS MEET FOR REPENTANCE.”  So, John called upon the people to repent and confess their sins and to do the works that would manifest the truth and sincerity of their repentance.  You can see the difference in these two baptisms, but it does seem that both these baptisms were done in the same way…being put into the water and drawn up again.

Now, let’s get to your good question.  We read in John 3:22, “After these things came Jesus and his disciples into the land of Judaea; and there he tarried with them AND BAPTIZED.” Yet, we read in John 4:1-2, “When therefore the Lord knew how the Pharisees had heard that Jesus made and baptized more disciples than John, (Though Jesus himself baptized not, but his disciples.)”  Why is that the Lord Jesus did not baptize others?  Obviously, He approved of baptism for He was baptized by John.  (Read Matthew 3:13-15).  Perhaps there might have been some envy among John’s disciples.  We read in John 3:26, “And they came unto John, and said unto him, Rabbi, he that was with thee beyond Jordan, to whom thou barest witness, behold, the same baptizeth, and ALL MEN COME TO HIM.”  Although the Pharisees heard that the Lord “made and baptized more disciples that John,” it was made clear that the Lord Jesus did not baptize.  It was His disciples that did the baptizing.  The reason why Jesus did not baptize was probably because, if He had baptized others, it might have caused jealous divisions among His followers.  Some might have considered themselves most worthy or honored who had been baptized by the Lord, therefore ignoring the purpose and value of baptism.  How we marvel at the wisdom of our blessed Lord.  He is called the ONLY wise God in Jude 25, “To the only wise God our Saviour, be glory and majesty, dominion and power, both now and ever. Amen.”  (CC)  (621.6)