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Matthew 25:34 says, “Then the King will say to the people on his right hand, ‘Come, you that are blessed by my Father! Come and possess the kingdom which has been prepared for you ever since the creation of the world.’” John 14:3 says, “And after I go and prepare a place for you, I will come back and take you to myself, so that you will be where I am.” Please sir, how do I reconcile these two verses? Matthew says the kingdom has been prepared and John says He had gone to prepare a place for us.
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Can you explain Proverbs 2:19? Does it mean that those who have committed adultery cannot be saved? Before my husband was “saved” he broke his vows many times, and I suffer with medical consequences for his sins. But, three years ago he repented, became a Christian and has been totally changed by Christ. How should I see this in relation to his salvation?
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Based on the Scriptures in Ecclesiastes 12:13, Matthew 5:17, Romans 3:31, Revelation 12:17 & 14:12 (and many more), I am of the understanding that the whole of Scripture is centered around the observance of the original instructions or what people call the Torah. This would complement the scripture where Christ is our sacrificial lamb, and our propitiation for sin, based on the violation of Torah, in which John expounds in his first epistle. Do you find this to be synonymous throughout Scripture?
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